[Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1

[Linda Alvord]

I wouldn't call it "too bad", it is really a "toggle"

   ]R=:?4#100
29 8 75 97
   ]R=:?4#100
24 40 21 82
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?.4#100
46 55 79 52
   ]R=:?4#100
77 9 63 92
   ]R=:?4#100
51 92 39 15

It allows you to get constant results to study something other than the
random behavior that  ?  causes.

Linda


-----Original Message-----
From: programming-bounces at forums.jsoftware.com
[mailto:programming-bounces at forums.jsoftware.com] On Behalf Of Brian Schott
Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2012 10:09 AM
To: programming at jsoftware.com
Subject: Re: [Jprogramming] convert 0,1 coding to _1,1

Mike,

Yes, I get your new results for ?. on the iPad. That's too bad, and worth
remembering, for schott.brian at gmail.com. Thanks.

---
(B=)

On Dec 11, 2012, at 6:12 AM, Mike Day <mike_liz.day at tiscali.co.uk> wrote:

> On 11/12/2012 12:13 AM, Brian Schott wrote:
> Is there a better way than the verb `am` to do the following?
> 
>   am =:_1& (I.@:-.@]})
>   am"1] 2 6 ?.@$ 2
> _1 _1 _1 _1 1 _1
> _1 _1 _1  1 1 _1
> 
> ===============================================
> Here are three other simple ways- my "random" array appears to be
different from yours(!?):
> 
>   ((_1 + +:) ; ({&_1 1) ; (_1&^@>:); am"1 )2 6 ?.@$ 2
> +----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+
> |_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|_1 1  1 _1 _1  1|
> |_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|_1 1 _1 _1 _1 _1|
> +----------------+----------------+----------------+----------------+
> 
> 
> Mike
> ----------------------------------------------------------------------
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